Equivalence partitioning and Boundary value analysis Objective question answer:

What is Equivalence partitioning?

Equivalence partitioning is a method for deriving test cases. In this method, equivalence classes (for input values) are identified such that each member of the class causes the same kind of processing and output to occur.

What is Boundary value analysis?

The values at the extremes (start/end values or lower/upper end values) of such class are known as Boundary values. Analyzing the behavior of a system using such values is called Boundary value analysis (BVA).

1. One of the fields on a form contains a text box which accepts numeric values in the range of 18 to 25. Identify the invalid Equivalence class.

a)    17
b)    19
c)    24
d)    21

Answer is ‘A’

Solution: The text box accepts numeric values in the range 18 to 25 (18 and 25 are also part of the class). So this class becomes our valid class. But the question is to identify invalid equivalence class. The classes will be as follows:

Class I: values < 18   => invalid class
Class II: 18 to 25       => valid class
Class III: values > 25 => invalid class
17 fall under invalid class. 19, 24 and 21 fall under valid class.

2. In an Examination a candidate has to score minimum of 24 marks in order to clear the exam. The maximum that he can score is 40 marks.  Identify the Valid Equivalence values if the student clears the exam.

a)    22, 23, 26
b)    21, 39, 40
c)    29, 30, 31
d)    0, 15, 22

Answer is ‘C’

Solution: The classes will be as follows:
Class I: values < 24   => invalid class
Class II: 24 to 40       => valid class
Class III: values > 40 => invalid class
We have to identify Valid Equivalence values. Valid Equivalence values will be there in Valid Equivalence class. All the values should be in Class II.

3. One of the fields on a form contains a text box which accepts alpha numeric values. Identify the Valid Equivalence class

a)    BOOK
b)    Book
c)    Boo01k
d)    Book

Answer is ‘C’

Solution: Alpha numeric is combination of alphabets and numbers. Hence we have to choose an option which has both of these. A valid equivalence class will consist of both alphabets and numbers. Option ‘c’ contains both alphabets and numbers.  

4. The Switch is switched off once the temperature falls below 18 and then it is turned on when the temperature is more than 21. When the temperature is more than 21. Identify the Equivalence values which belong to the same class.

a)    12, 16, 22
b)    24, 27, 17
c)    22, 23, 24
d)    14, 15, 19

Answer is ‘C’

Solution: we have to choose values from same class (it can be valid or invalid class). The classes will be as follows:
Class I: less than 18 (switch turned off)
Class II: 18 to 21
Class III: above 21 (switch turned on)
Only in Option ‘c’ all values are from one class.

5. A program validates a numeric field as follows: values less than 10 are rejected, values between 10 and 21 are accepted, values greater than or equal to 22 are rejected. Which of the following input values cover all of the equivalence partitions?

a. 10, 11, 21
b. 3, 20, 21
c. 3, 10, 22
d. 10, 21, 22

Answer is ‘C’

Solution: We have to select values which fall in all the equivalence class (valid and invalid both). The classes will be as follows:
Class I: values <= 9   => invalid class
Class II: 10 to 21       => valid class
Class III: values >= 22 => invalid class
All the values from option ‘c’ fall under all different equivalence clas

6. A program validates a numeric field as follows: values less than 10 are rejected, values between 10 and 21 are accepted, values greater than or equal to 22 are rejected. Which of the following covers the MOST boundary values?

a. 9,10,11,22
b. 9,10,21,22
c. 10,11,21,22
d. 10,11,20,21

Answer is ‘B’

Solution: We have already come up with the classes as shown in question 5. The boundaries can be identified as 9, 10, 21, and 22. These four values are in option ‘b’.

7. In a system designed to work out the tax to be paid:
An employee has £4000 of salary tax free.
The next £1500 is taxed at 10%.
The next £28000 after that is taxed at 22%.
Any further amount is taxed at 40%.

To the nearest whole pound, which of these groups of numbers fall into three DIFFERENT equivalence classes?
a)    £4000; £5000; £5500
b)    £32001; £34000; £36500
c)    £28000; £28001; £32001
d)    £4000; £4200; £5600

Answer is ‘D’

Solution: The classes will be as follows:
Class I   : 0 to £4000          => no tax
Class II  : £4001 to £5500   => 10 % tax
Class III : £5501 to £33500 => 22 % tax
Class IV : £33501 and above => 40 % tax

Select the values which fall in three different equivalence classes. Option‘d’ has values from three different equivalence classes.

8. In a system designed to work out the tax to be paid:
An employee has £4000 of salary tax free.
The next £1500 is taxed at 10%.

The next £28000 after that is taxed at 22%.
Any further amount is taxed at 40%.

To the nearest whole pound, which of these is a valid Boundary Value Analysis test case?
a)    £28000
b)    £33501
c)    £32001
d)    £1500

Answer is ‘B’

Solution: The classes are already divided in question # 7. We have to select a value which is a boundary value (start/end value). 33501 is a boundary value.

9. Given the following specification, which of the following values for age are in the SAME equivalence partition?
If you are less than 18, you are too young to be insured.
Between 18 and 30 inclusive, you will receive a 20% discount.Anyone over 30 is not eligible for a discount.
a)    17, 18, 19
b)    29, 30, 31
c)    18, 29, 30
d)    17, 29, 31

Answer is ‘C’

Solution: The classes will be as follows:
Class I: age < 18       => not insured
Class II: age 18 to 30 => 20 % discount
Class III: age > 30     => no discount
Here we cannot determine if the above classes are valid or invalid, as nothing is mentioned in the question. (But according to our guess we can say I and II are valid and III is invalid. But this is not required here.) We have to select values which are in SAME equivalence partition. Values from option ‘c’ fall in same partition.

10. Which of the following statements is NOT correct?
a)    A minimal test set that achieves 100% LCSAJ coverage will also achieve 100% branch coverage.
b)    A minimal test set that achieves 100% path coverage will also achieve 100% statement coverage.
c)    A minimal test set that achieves 100% path coverage will generally detect more faults than one that achieves 100% statement coverage.
d)    A minimal test set that achieves 100% statement coverage will generally detect more faults than one that achieves 100% branch coverage.

Ans: D

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11. Analise the following highly simplified procedure:

Ask: “What type of ticket do you require, single or return?”
IF the customer wants ‘return’
Ask: “What rate, Standard or Cheap-day?”
IF the customer replies ‘Cheap-day’
Say: “That will be £11:20″
ELSE
Say: “That will be £19:50″
ENDIF
ELSE
Say: “That will be £9:75″
ENDIF

Now decide the minimum number of tests that are needed to ensure that all the questions have been asked, all combinations have occurred and all
replies given.
a)    3
b)    4
c)    5
d)    6

Ans:A

12. In a system designed to work out the tax to be paid:
An employee has £4000 of salary tax free. The next £1500 is taxed at 10% The next £28000 is taxed at 22% Any further amount is taxed at 40% To the nearest whole pound, which of these is a valid Boundary Value Analysis test case?
a)    £1500
b)    £32001
c)    £33501
d)    £28000

Ans:C

13. Given the following fragment of code, how many tests are
required for 100% decision coverage?

If width > length
thenbiggest_dimension = width
if height > width
thenbiggest_dimension = height
End if
elsebiggest_dimension = length
If height > length
thenbiggest_dimension = height
end if
End if

Ans: 4

14. In a system designed to work out the tax to be paid:
An employee has £4000 of salary tax free. The next £1500 is taxed at 10%
The next £28000 is taxed at 22%
Any further amount is taxed at 40%
Which of these groups of numbers would fall into the same equivalence class?
a) £4800; £14000; £28000
b) £5200; £5500; £28000
c) £28001; £32000; £35000
d) £5800; £28000; £32000

Ans: D

15. Order numbers on a stock control system can range between 10000 and 99999 inclusive. Which of the following inputs might be a result of designing tests for only valid equivalence classes and valid boundaries?
a) 1000, 50000, 99999
b) 9999, 50000, 100000
c) 10000, 50000, 99999
d) 10000, 99999, 100000

Ans: C

16. Given the following code, which statement is true about the minimum number of test cases required for full statement and branch coverage?
Read p
Read q
IF p+q > 100 THEN
Print “Large”
ENDIF
IF p > 50 THEN
Print “p Large”
ENDIF
a) 1 test for statement coverage, 3 for branch coverage
b) 1 test for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage
c) 1 test for statement coverage, 1 for branch coverage
d) 2 tests for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage

Ans: B

17. Consider the following statements:
i.100% statement coverage guarantees 100% branch coverage.
ii.100% branch coverage guarantees 100% statement coverage.
iii.100% branch coverage guarantees 100% decision coverage.
iv.100% decision coverage guarantees 100% branch coverage.
v.100% statement coverage guarantees 100% decision coverage.
a) ii is True; i, iii, iv & v are False
b) i & v are True; ii, iii & iv are False
c) ii & iii are True; i, iv & v are False
d) ii, iii & iv are True; i & v are False

Ans: D

18. If the pseudo code below were a programming language, how many tests are required to achieve 100% statement coverage?
If x=3 then
Display_messageX;
If y=2 then
Display_messageY;
Else
Display_messageZ;
Else
Display_messageZ;
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4

Ans: C

19. Using the same code example as question 17, how many tests are required to achieve 100% branch/decision coverage?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4

Ans: C

20. A program validates a numeric field as follows:
Values less than 10 are rejected, values between 10 and 21 are accepted, values greater than or equal to 22 are rejected. Which of the following input values cover all of the equivalence partitions?
a. 10, 11, 21
b. 3, 20, 21
c. 3, 10, 22
d. 10, 21, 22

Ans: C

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21. Using the same specifications as question 29, which of the following covers the MOST boundary values?
a. 9,10,11,22
b. 9,10,21,22
c. 10,11,21,22
d. 10,11,20,21

Ans: B

22. An input field takes the year of birth between 1900 and 2004.
The boundary values for testing this field are:

a. 0,1900,2004,2005
b. 1900, 2004
c. 1899,1900,2004,2005
d. 1899, 1900, 1901,2003,2004,2005

Ans: C

23. Given the Following program
IF X < Y
THEN Statement 1;
ELSE IF Y >= Z
THEN Statement 2;
END
Cyclomatic Complexity is :

a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5

Ans: B

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Quiz paper of the software testing

1.  Regression testing should be performed:

v) Every week
w) After the software has changed
x) As often as possible
y) When the environment has changed
z) When the project manager says

a) v & w are true, x, y & z are false
b) w, x & y are true, v & z are false
c) w & y are true, v, x & z are false
d) w is true, v, x, y & z are false

Ans: C

2. IEEE 829 test plan documentation standard contains all of the following except

a) Test items
b) Test deliverables
c) Test specifications
d) Test tasks

Ans: C

3. When should testing be stopped?

a) When all the planned tests have been run
b) When all faults have been fixed correctly
c) When time has run out
d) It depends on the risks for the system being tested

Ans: D

4. Which of the following statements is not true

a) Test environments should be as similar to production environments
as possible
b) The acceptance test does not necessarily include a regression test
c) Verification activities should not involve testers (reviews, inspections
etc)
d) Performance testing can be done during unit testing as well as during
the testing of whole system

Ans: C

5.  In which order should tests be run?

a) The most important tests first
b) The order they are thought of
c) The easiest tests first(to give initial confidence)
d) The most difficult tests first(to allow maximum time for fixing)

Ans: A

6. When should you stop testing?

a) When time for testing has run out.
b) When the test completion criteria have been met
c) When all planned tests have been run
d) When no faults have been found by the tests run

Ans: B

7. Which of the following is true?

a) Component testing should be black box, system testing should be
white box.
b) The more tests you run, the more bugs you will find.
c) The fewer bugs you find,the better your testing was
d) If you find a lot of bugs in testing, you should not be very confident
about the quality of software

Ans: D

8. Which of the following is NOT a type of non-functional test?

a) Performance
b) Usability
c) State-Transition
d) Security

Ans: C

9. Which of the following tools would you use to detect a memory leak?

a) State analysis
b) Coverage analysis
c) Memory analysis
d) Dynamic analysis

Ans: D

10. Which of the following statements are true?

a) Faults in program specifications are the most expensive to fix.
b) Faults in code are the most expensive to fix.
c) Faults in designs are the most expensive to fix.
d) Faults in requirements are the most expensive to fix

Ans: D

11. Enough testing has been performed when:

a) No more faults are found.
b) The required level of confidence has been achieved.
c) Time runs out.
d) The users won’t find any serious faults.

Ans: B

12. Which one of the following statements, about capture-replay tools, is NOT correct?

a) They are used to support multi-user testing.
b) They are used to capture and animate user requirements.
c) They capture aspects of user behavior.
d) They are the most frequently purchased types of CAST tool.

Ans: B

13. How would you estimate the amount of re-testing likely to be required?

a) Metrics from previous similar projects
b) Discussions with the development team
c) a & b
d) Time allocated for regression testing

Ans: C

14. Which of the following should NOT normally be an objective for a test?

a) To find faults in the software.
b) To assess whether the software is ready for release.
c) To prove that the software is correct.
d) To demonstrate that the software doesn’t work.

Ans: C

15. Which of the following is a form of functional testing?

a) Usability testing
b) Boundary value analysis
c) Performance testing
d) Security testing

Ans: B

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Software Testing Quiz Questions and Answers

1. Which of the following is true of the V-model?

a) It states that modules are tested against user requirements.
b) It specifies the test techniques to be used.
c) It only models the testing phase.
d) It includes the verification of designs.

Ans: D

2. Which one of the following describes the major benefit of verification early in the life cycle?

a) It allows the identification of changes in user requirements.
b) It reduces defect multiplication.
c) It facilitates timely set up of the test environment.
d) It allows testers to become involved early in the project.

Ans: B

3. Which of the following is the main purpose of the integration strategy for integration testing in the small?

a) To specify which modules to combine when, and how many at
b) To ensure that the system interfaces to other systems and networks
c) To ensure that all of the small modules are tested adequatelyonce
d) To specify how the software should be divided into modules

Ans: A

4. What is NOT included in typical costs for an inspection process?

a) Setting up forms and databases
b) Analyzing metrics and improving processes
c) Time spent on the document outside the meeting
d) Writing the documents to be inspected

Ans: D

5. Which statement about expected outcomes is FALSE?

a) Expected outcomes are defined by the software’s behavior
b) Expected outcomes may include timing constraints such as response
times
c) Expected outcomes should be predicted before a test is run
d) Expected outcomes are derived from a specification, not from the
code

Ans: A

6. Which of the following is NOT included in the Test Plan document of the Test Documentation Standard?

a) What is not to be tested
b) Schedules and deadlines
c) Quality plans
d) Test environment properties

Ans: C

7. Test ware(test cases, test dataset)

a) Is needed only until the software is released into production or use
b) Should be newly constructed for each new version of the software
c) Needs configuration management just like requirements, design and
code
d) Does not need to be documented and commented, as it does not form
part of the released software system

Ans: C

8. What is the main reason for testing software before releasing it?

a) To decide when the software is of sufficient quality to release
b) To show that system will work after release
c) To find as many bugs as possible before release
d) To give information for a risk based decision about release

Ans: D

9. The later in the development life cycle a fault is discovered, the more expensive it is to fix. Why?

a) The documentation is poor, so it takes longer to find out what the
software is doing.
b) The fault has been built into more documentation,code,tests, etc.
c) Wages are rising
d) None of the above

Ans: B

10. When reporting faults found to developers, testers should be:

a) As polite, constructive and helpful as possible
b) Diplomatic, sensitive to the way they may react to criticism
c) Firm about insisting that a bug is not a “feature” if it should be fixed
d) All of the above

Ans: D

11. Impact Analysis helps to decide:

a) How much regression testing should be done
b) How many more test cases need to written
c) Exit Criteria
d) Different Tools to perform Regression Testing

Ans: A

12. Which of the following is not phase of the Fundamental Test Process?

a) Test Planning and Control
b) Requirement Analysis
c) Test implementation and Execution
d) Evaluating Exit criteria and reporting

Ans: B

13. Which of the following techniques is NOT a black box technique?

a) State transition testing
b) LCSAJ (Linear Code Sequence and Jump)
c) Syntax testing
d) Boundary value analysis

Ans: B

14. Repeated Testing of an already tested program, after modification, to discover any defects introduced or uncovered as a result of the changes in the software being tested or in another related or unrelated software component:

a) Negative Testing
b) Confirmation Testing
c) Regression Testing
d) Retesting

Ans: C

15. The Kick Off phase of a formal review includes the following:

a) Explaining the objective
b) Follow up
c) Fixing defects found typically done by author
d) Individual Meeting preparations

Ans: A

16. Which of the following uses Impact Analysis most?

a) Component testing
b) User acceptance testing
c) Non-functional system testing
d) Maintenance testing

Ans: D

17. Statement Coverage will not check for the following.

a) Dead Code
b) Unused Branches
c) Missing Statements
d) Unused Statement

Ans: C

18. Evaluating testability of the requirements and system are a part of which phase

a) Test Analysis and Design
b) Test Planning and control
c) Test Implementation and execution
d) Evaluating exit criteria and reporting

Ans: A

19. Code Coverage is used as a measure of what?

a) Defects
b) Trends analysis
c) Test Effectiveness
d) Time Spent Testing

Ans: C

20. A deviation from the specified or expected behavior that is visible to end-users is called:

a) An error
b) A failure
c) A fault
d) A defect

Ans: B

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Fundamentals Of Software Testing Online Practice Test

1. Which expression best matches the following characteristics of the review processes:

  1. Led by the author
  2. Undocumented
  3. No management participation
  4. Led by a moderator or leader
  5. Uses entry and exit criteria

s) Inspection
t) Peer review
u) Informal review
v) walkthrough

a) s = 4 and 5, t = 3, u = 2, v = 1
b) s = 4, t = 3, u = 2 and 5, v = 1
c) s = 1 and 5, t = 3, u = 2, v = 4
d) s = 4 and 5, t = 1, u= 2, v = 3

Ans: A

2. Consider the following statements:

i) An incident may be closed without being fixed.
ii) Incidents may not be raised against documentation.
iii) The final stage of incident tracking is fixing.
iv) The incident record does not include information on test
environments.

a) ii is true, i, iii and iv are false
b) i is true, ii, iii and iv are false
c) i and iv are true, ii and iii are false
d) i and ii are true, iii and iv are false

Ans: B

3. Consider the following statements about early test design:

i) early test design can prevent fault multiplication.
ii) faults found during early test design are more expensive to fix
iii) early test design can find faults
iv) early test design can cause changes to the requirements
v) early test design normally takes more effort

a) i, iii & iv are true; ii & v are false
b) iii & iv are true; i, ii & v are false
c) i, iii, iv & v are true; ii is false
d) i & ii are true; iii, iv & v are false

Ans: A

4. Which one of the following are non-functional testing methods?

a) System testing
b) Usability testing
c) Performance testing
d) Both b & c

Ans: D

5. Which of the following tools would be involved in the automation of regression test?

a) Data tester
b) Boundary tester
c) Capture/Playback
d) Output comparator.

Ans: C

6. Incorrect form of Logic coverage is:

a) Statement Coverage
b) Pole Coverage
c) Condition Coverage
d) Path Coverage

Ans: B

7. Which of the following is not a quality characteristic listed in ISO 9126 Standard?

a) Functionality
b) Usability
c) Supportability
d) Maintainability

Ans: C

8. To test a function, the programmer has to write a _________, which calls the function to be tested and passes it test data.

a) Stub
b) Driver
c) Proxy
d) None of the above

Ans: B

9. During the software development process, at what point can the test process start?

a) When the code is complete.
b) When the design is complete.
c) When the software requirements have been approved
d) When the first code module is ready for unit testing

Ans: C

10. How much testing is enough?

a) This question is impossible to answer
b) This question is easy to answer
c) The answer depends on the risk for your industry, contract and
special requirements
d) This answer depends on the maturity of your developers

Ans: C

11. A common test technique during component test is:

a) Statement and branch testing
b) Usability testing
c) Security testing
d) Performance testing

Ans: A

12. Independent Verification & Validation is:

a) Done by the Developer
b) Done by the Test Engineers
c) Done By Management
d) Done by an Entity Outside the Projects sphere of influence

Ans: D

13. Functional system testing is:

a) Testing that the system functions with other systems
b) Testing that the components that comprise the system function
together
c) Testing the end to end functionality of the system as a whole
d) Testing the system performs functions within specified response
times

Ans: C

14. Peer Reviews are also called as:

a) Inspection
b) Walkthrough
c) Technical Review
d) Formal Review

Ans: C

15. Success Factors for a review include:

i. Each Review does not have a predefined objective.
ii. Defects found are welcomed and expressed objectively
iii. Management supports a good review process.
iv.There is an emphasis on learning and process improvement

  1. ii,iii,iv are correct and i is incorrect
  2. iii , i , iv is correct and ii is incorrect
  3. i , iii , iv , ii is incorrect
  4. ii is correct

Ans: A

16. Test cases are designed during:

a) Test recording.
b) Test planning.
c) Test configuration.
d) Test specification.

Ans: D

17. Which of the following is NOT part of system testing?

a) Business process-based testing
b) Performance, load and stress testing
c) Usability testing
d) Top-down integration testing

Ans: D

18. A configuration management system would NOT normally provide:

a) Linkage of customer requirements to version numbers.
b) Facilities to compare test results with expected results.
c) The precise differences in versions of software component source
code.
d) Restricted access to the source code library.

Ans: B

19. The cost of fixing a fault:

a) Is not important
b) Increases the later a fault is found
c) Decreases the later a fault is found
d) Can never be determined

Ans: B

20. Could reviews or inspections be considered part of testing?

a) No, because they apply to development documentation
b) No, because they are normally applied before testing
c) Yes, because both help detect faults and improve quality
d) Yes, because testing includes all non-constructive activities

Ans: C

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Please share your views………..

Software Testing Knowledgebase: Objective Type Questions

1. A deviation from the specified or expected behavior that is visible to end-users is called:

a) an error
b) a fault
c) a failure
d) a defect

Ans: C

2. A configuration management system would NOT normally provide:

a) Linkage of customer requirements to version numbers.
b) The precise differences in versions of software component source code.
c) Facilities to compare test results with expected results.
d) Restricted access to the source code librar

Ans: C

3. Test cases are designed during:

a) Test recording.
b) Test configuration.
c) Test planning.
d) Test specification

Ans:D

4. Which of the following statements about reviews is true?

a) Reviews should be performed on specifications, code, and test plans
b) Reviews are the least effective way of testing code.
c) Reviews are unlikely to find faults in test plans.
d) Reviews cannot be performed on user requirements specifications.

Ans: A

5. In case of Large Systems

a) Only few tests should be run
b) Test Cases written by good test engineers should be executed
c) Only Good Test Cases should be executed
d) Testing should be on the basis of Risk

Ans: D

6. Which of the following will be the best definition for Testing :

a) Testing is executing Software for the purpose of finding defects
b) The purpose of testing is to demonstrate that the program is defect free c) The purpose of testing is to demonstrate that the program does what it is supposed to do
d) The goal / purpose of testing is to demonstrate that the program works.

Ans: A

7. Which of the following is not a type of incremental testing approach?

a) Big-bang
b) Top down
c) Bottom up
d) Functional incrimination

Ans: A

8. Test Conditions are derived from

a) Test Design
b) Test Cases
c) Test Data
d) Specifications

Ans: D

9. Pick the best definition of quality

a) Quality is job one
b) Zero defects
c) Work as designed
d) Conformance to requirements

Ans: D

10. Fault Masking is

a) Creating a test case which does not reveal a fault
b) Error condition hiding another error condition
c) Masking a fault by developer
d) Masking a fault by a tester

Ans: B

11.Boundary value testing

a) Is the same as equivalence partitioning tests
b) Tests combinations of input circumstances
c) Test boundary conditions on, below and above the edges of input and         output equivalence classes
d) Is used in white box testing strategy

Ans: C

12. One Key reason why developers have difficulty testing their own work is:

a) Lack of technical documentation
b) Lack of test tools on the market for developer’s
c) Lack of Objectivity
d) Lack of training

Ans: C

13. In a review meeting a moderator is a person who:

a) Takes minutes of the meeting
b) Takes telephone calls
c) Mediates between people
d) writes the documents to be reviewed

Ans: C

14. Acceptance test cases are based on what?

a) Decision table
b) Design
c) Code
d) Requirements

Ans: D

15. How much testing is enough?

a) This question is easy to answer
b) This question is impossible to answer
c) The answer depends on the risk for your industry, contract and special requirements
d) This answer depends on the maturity of your developers

Ans: C

16. which of the following is the component test standard?

a) IEEE 610
b) IEEE 829
c) BS7925-1
d) BS7925-2

Ans: D

17. Which of the following is NOT a standard related to testing?

a) IEEE610
b) IEEE829
c) BS7925-1
d) BS7925-2

Ans: A

18. The standard that gives definitions of testing terms is:

a) ISO/IEC 12207
b) BS 7925-1
c) ANSI/IEEE 729
d) ANSI/IEEE 829

Ans: B

19. Which of the following is NOT true of incidents?

a) Incidents are raised when expected and actual results differ.
b) Incidents may be raised against user requirements.
c) Incidents require investigation and/or correction.
d) Incident resolution is the responsibility of the author of the software under test.

Ans: D

20. Which of the following is false?

a) In a system two different failures may have different severities.
b) A fault need not affect the reliability of a system.
c) A system is necessarily more reliable after debugging for the removal of a fault.
d) Undetected errors may lead to faults and eventually to incorrect behavior.

Ans: C

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